So, let me see if I have this right.
The oil soaks into the cover, then into deeper regions of the ball. When it reaches the "inner core" part of the ball, it somehow liquifies the inner core, which is then bled out with the old oil, leaving a void on the inside of the ball?
I really don't think this is correct. Even if the conditioner does reach that level of the core, and even if it did soften it up a bit, I really don't think it would dissolve it to the point it would leave voids in the interior of the ball.
Sounds more like an unsubstatiable sales pitch to me, trying to build up the sales with "made up" statistics that are virtually unverifiable.
I know dudes still using balls from 10-15 years ago. If this tale were true, these balls should be hollow by now, shouldn't they?