Precision,
That is one of the best explanations I have ever read.
My thoughts are that if you have 2 balls that are statically and dynamically identical and have the same cover composition but different surface grits there could be a VERY small difference in spin times.
I looked at it in a different way than most would though and would like your input since you are obviously an analytical person.
For comparisons sake lets say we have a 320 grit ball and 2000 grit ball.
I think of it like a treaded tire versus a slick tire, since we are dealing with 2 balls that would have virtually identical amounts of deformation and the rollers have none.
Would the 2000 grit ball actually have a higher coefficient of friction due to it having slightly more contact surface like a slick tire does on dry pavement.
To elaborate on this further I feel that a polished ball not only has more backend because it has more energy but also because it has more contact surface when there is no liquid medium that has to be cut through for traction.
Do you agree?
I realize that seeing the differences would require sophisticated measuring equipment but I feel there would be a difference if a person had access to the equipment.
I also realize that this would give a diminishing return and you would start to move backwards at some point, where those points are I haven't a clue.
Too bad the determinator doesn't give you a revolutions to PSA instead of time, then I wouldn't have these thoughts
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www.Bowling-Info.comBR.com's unofficial FAQ sectionEdited on 10/8/2005 3:13 AM