BallReviews

For Sale/For Trade/Want to Buy => General FS/FT/WTB => Topic started by: nd300 on April 03, 2004, 07:57:55 AM

Title: Intentional fouls
Post by: nd300 on April 03, 2004, 07:57:55 AM

Can a bowler be forced to take zero pinfall for the entire frame if an intentional foul is committed????????
 I looked at the Rule Book online but couldn't find any mention of this but I was told that this IS a rule.........
 If so where and under what section?????
 Thanks for your help.........
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Chris

Title: Re: Intentional fouls
Post by: freedomrules3 on April 03, 2004, 11:04:35 PM

never saw an intentional foul, have saw a few intentional gutter balls though.
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AS I GET OLDER I AM LESS AND LESS TOLERABLE TO CHILDISH BEHAVIOR AND MEAN PEOPLE

Title: Re: Intentional fouls
Post by: stormerjip on April 03, 2004, 11:21:46 PM

If there is an intentional foul to help them on the first ball its zero for entire frame but if they do it on the second ball where i don't see how it would help them then they can only take zero for that throw

Title: Re: Intentional fouls
Post by: mumzie on April 05, 2004, 12:25:20 AM

They get no pins for the ball thrown. In other words - if they leave 2 pins standing, and get one of them on the spare shot, they get 8 for the frame if they intentionally foul on the spare shot.
If they intentionally foul on the first shot, it's like any other foul.

Shouldn't be true - I think if it's an intentional foul, it should be zero for the frame. Period.
Bad sportsmanship is bad sportsmanship...

Title: Re: Intentional fouls
Post by: sportwood24 on April 05, 2004, 11:25:22 PM

ABC rule book says intentional foulf means zero for entire frame...