BallReviews
General Category => Miscellaneous => Topic started by: ClutchClay on January 22, 2004, 10:03:46 PM
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It was in a friendly Vegas league (lots of spouses, good friends, etc.). Anyway, I was bowling against one of my good friends and he missed a 7 pin in the gutter. He was a bit frustrated and stepped on the foul line to intentionally foul. Now, I believe the rule would give him zero for that frame. So I said to him (in a joking, I'm giving you a hard time voice), "Hey that was an intentional foul. That's a zero." He said, "Fine, go ahead and change it." Of course I said I was only joking, but in the back of my mind I was thinking that if we lost the game or total by 18 then I would be upset. As it turned out, we won the game and total, so I never gave it another thought.
What would you have done?
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Regards, ClutchClay
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The penalty is only if an advantage was gained by the foul. Since none was gained then his score should stand.
If he had a deliberate foul after splitting on the first ball then he could get zero for the frame.
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I used to think the same thing - I believe the rule used to be that the intentional foul was zero on the frame no matter what.
However, before I called a guy on it last year, after being corrected by a member of this board, I checked the rules. Indeed, there is no penalty. If there were two pins standing, and he hit one, then intentionally fouled,he would get no count on the ball - he would get the count for the first ball, though.
I would like to propose that all leagues adopt a rule that either has a provision for zero for the frame, or a monetary fine - like the swearing fine in my scratch league - that actually DOES get inforced.
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that would be the correct interpretation of the rule sawbones, he would still have 9 for his first ball and a f for the second. he doesnt get a zero for the frame.
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Thank you all for correcting my understanding of the rule.
I'm glad I didn't force the issue.
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Regards, ClutchClay
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Actually, SawBones is not completely correct. I just went to Bowl.com to check out the rule:
Deliberate Foul
Rule 5b. When a player deliberately fouls to benefit by the calling of a foul, the player shall be
credited with zero pinfall for that delivery and not allowed further deliveries in that frame. If
questions arise, Rule 10, Provisional Ball, should be followed.
So, if you foul on purpose on the first ball and benefit from it (on a split I guess), then you get zero for that ball and do not get to throw your second ball - essentially zero for the frame.
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Regards, ClutchClay